Now use your own OED link to look up the word "semitic" and explain why "anti-semitic" exclusively applies to the Jewish people and excludes the vast majority of the Semitic people of the region, namely all the Arabs, Palestinians, etc.

Then go on to read the etymology of the term "anti-Semitic">

https://www.myjewishlearning.com/article/where-the-word-anti-semitism-comes-from/

"The issue is with the word Semitism. The word emerges from the study of languages, and may have once been a reasonably neutral description of the peoples and cultures of the Middle East, essentially just a means of distinguishing language groups.

But those who favor antisemitism over anti-Semitism note that the term Semitentum, usually attributed to the German Enlightenment thinker A. L. Schlozer (1735-1809), was polemical from birth, invented to establish a polarity between superior white Christian cultures and those of the inferior Orient.

[= all the people of that region]

By the time the word was appropriated by critics of the Jews, however, it had lost even a semblance of neutrality. Semitism came to signify a bundle of uniformly negative traits."

The key word here is "appropriated". There is no uniform consensus about its use as a neologism due to its etymological origin. Even the Nazis didn't use the term because they understood its implications. Yes, they certainly were "Judeophobic” and actively practised “Jew-hatred" but were by their own declaration not anti-Semitic. By now you ought to understand the problem of using imprecise wording. Because words backed by random definitions by random people lose their collective meaning and societal usefulness.

The importance of the proper semantic relations between names and the things or kinds of things to which they refer has a long history, already way back in China. And remains so today.